Please explain to me popularly (I am ill and dull) in no more than 10 lines the difference between

1) abolition of the absolute monopoly of foreign trade with its replacement by a regime of trade concessions and 2) preservation of a (non-absolute) monopoly of foreign trade with a directive: private trading firms enter into contractual relations with the People's Commissariat for Foreign Trade for the purpose of supplying them with foreign goods?

Specifically? popularly? what is the difference?

With communist greetings, Lenin

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Written March 3, 1922

First published in 1959

in the Lenin Miscellany XXXVI

Printed from the manuscript